(c) Copyright 1980, Robert F. Harkrider

Question: What is "a sin unto death" (I John 5:16)? Answer: The epistle of first John has much to say about sin and its forgiveness, and a proper understanding of this passage must be considered in view of these other statements. (1) The apostle affirms that whosoever is begotten of God "doeth no sin", literally, does not keep on doing sin (as a life habit), for a life of sin would make one of the devil from whom all sin originates (1 John 3:8-9). (2) However, John does say that sin is found in the lives of all Christians (1 John 1:8-10). (3) In view of this the Christian has "an advocate, with the Father, Jesus Christ, the righteous" (1 John 2:1), and the promise that "if we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 John 1:8). The basic thought is that man does not become perfectly sinless when he becomes a Christian and therefore will need the continual cleansing power of Christ's blood. Though he is not perfect, the Christian does not "serve sin" - he does not harden his heart and allow sin to reign in his body (Compare Romans 6:1-18). 

A sin which a man may see his brother commit may be forgiven if the proper attitude of penitence and prayer is manifested (James 5:16; Acts 8:22-24). However, if the brother who commits the sin is impenitent and rebellious, forgiveness could not be obtained through the prayers of others. Consider this: 

1. The Lord will forgive every sin, of whatever nature, that a brother confesses (I John 1:8). 
2. There is, however, a sin which the Lord will not forgive (1 John 5:16). 
3. Therefore, the sin which the Lord will not forgive, is simply a sin, any sin, all sin that a brother will not confess! 

"A sin unto death" involves the disposition of heart of the sinner. If the disobedient is unwilling to repent and acknowledge his sin, such a disposition effectively closes the door of heaven in one's face. The "death" here mentioned is the "second death", an eternal separation from God and punishment in the lake of fire (Rev. 20:14-15). 

This passage is not to be confused, as is often done, with Matt. 12:31-32 - "the sin against the Holy Ghost." Three primary reasons make this have a different application. (1) In 1 John the reference is to a brother who sins, i.e. an erring child of God. In Matthew, Jesus was particularly addressing the Pharisees who had just accused the Lord as having the power of the devil rather than the Holy Ghost as He worked miracles (Matt. 12:14-24). (2) Furthermore, Jesus spoke of a specific sin, "the blasphemy against the Holy Ghost" whereas John's statement, 'a sin Unto death", would include any and all manner of sin which is not confessed. (3) The blasphemy against the Holy Ghost seems to have been limited to a period in which miracles were worked by the power of the Holy Spirit. The Pharisees were not willing to accept the testimony from God through miracles that Christ was His Son, and they attributed the power of Jesus in working miracles to Beelzebub, the prince of devils. Since the age of miracles has ceased (1 Cor. 13:9-12) I do not believe a person can similarly sin today. However, one can commit "a sin unto death" today if he ignores God's invitation.

-- Robert Harkrider